Blog Archives

Steps to Crack FMGE (MCI Screening Test ) in 2 Months

Addressed by One FMGE (MCI SCREENING TEST) Aspirant who cleared exam in March 2013.

Dear All, 

I recently, cleared March 2013 FMGE exam with two months dedicated preparation. I really mean two months because I finished MD in 2009 from Ukraine and thereafter, I joined clinical fellowship in Europe. I would like to emphasize how I prepared for an exam and I hope the following steps may help other FMGE aspirants. 

You should really believe yourself that you can clear the exam with your hard work and some essential basics. 

  1. I started reading PSM FMGE and DNB questions and it took almost 7 days to complete. 
  2. After PSM I started PROAFS FMGE questions only and it took me only 3 days to complete.
  3. Thirdly, I go through KAMAL KV basic notes which is very brief for following subjects. 

Physiology KAMAL KV basic notes I guess around 7 to 8 pages and thereafter I did KAMAL KV FMGE questions on the same day. 

Next day I took Biochemistry read KAMAL KV basic notes also around 9 pages and thereafter I did KAMAL KV FMGE questions on the same day. 

and the Pattern of Study continuous for following subjects. 

  • a- Pathology (Kamal KV notes followed by FMGE Q only) 
  • b- Microbiology (Kamal KV notes followed by FMGE Q only ) 
  • c- Pharmacology (Kamal KV notes followed by FMGE Q only ) 
  • d- Medicine (Kamal KV notes followed by FMGE Q only ) 
  • e- Surgery (Kamal KV notes followed by FMGE Q only ) 
  • f- Opthal (Kamal KV notes followed by FMGE Q only ) 
  • g- Obs and Gyne ((Kamal KV notes followed by FMGE Q only ) 

I only did Kamal KV FMGE questions for remaining subjects like ENT, Pediatrics, Forensic medicine. 

Most important thing in my study plan was 3 times revision plan for each subject and I stick to it till the end and I managed to do it. 

Last week before exam schedule. 
1- One day preparation for PSM 
2- One day preparation for PROAFS 
3- One day preparation for Pre-clinical subjects (Anatomy, Physiology, Biochem) 
3- One day preparation for Pre-clinical subjects (Pathology, Pharma, micro) 
4- One day preparation for Clinical subjects (Medicine, Surgery) 
5- One day preparation for Clinical subjects (Opthal. Obs and Gyne) 
6- One day for other subjects like, ENT, FM, Pediatrics. 
7- One day final revision for all subjects. 

I left anatomy basic notes but did FMGE questions thoroughly. 

Again I stress that you need to revise at least three times before exam. Also, you should strongly determine and trust your-self that you can pass the exam no matter how different the exam pattern is. Last but not least at-least 2 minutes to Almighty per day. 

I am sure everyone can pass the exam with dedication. There is no other loophole. 

Congrats to all those who passed FMGE 2013 march exam and good luck future FMGE aspirants.




New list of Chines Medical Institutions admitting International Students for Academic Year 2012-2013.

Pocket-14, Sector-8 Dwarka
New Delhi – 110077

It is stated that Council has received a letter from  the PRC Ministry of Education,  which they mentioned that the International Cooperation and Exchange Department of the Ministry of Education of People’s Republic of China Ministry, has presents its compliments to the Indian Embassy for enrolment of Foreign Students in Under Graduate Clinical and Oral Medicine courses for the academic year 2012-2013.

They have further stated that the Department of Education of Peoples Republic of China has institutionalized the enrolment plan for 2012-2013 which include 50 colleges/universities teaching in English medium. Further they have enclosed a list of 50 Colleges/Universities and other related information can be downloaded from their website i.e.

The names of 50 universities are mentioned as under:-


Name of School

Plan to Enroll in 2012-13


Capital Medical University



Tianjin Medical University



Hebei Medical University



Dalian Medical University



China Medical University



Jilin University



Harbin Medical University



Fudan University



Tongji University



Southeast University



Nanjing Medical University



Soochow University



Zhejiang University



Wenzhou Medical College



Shandong University



Qingdao University



Zhengzhou University



Wuhan University



Huazhong University of Science & Technology



Central South University



Sun Yat-Sen University



Southern Medical University



Guangxi Medical University



Sichuan University



Chongqing Medical University



Xi’an Jiaotong University



Xinjiang Medical University



Nantong University



Fujian Medical University



Anhui Medical University



Nanchang University



Guangzhou Medical University



Jiamusi University



Beihua University



Ningxia Medical University



Shantou University



Lanzhou University



Kunming Medical University



Taishan Medical University



Xuzhou Medical College



Ningbo University



Weifang Medical University



Dali University



Xiamen University



Shihezi University



Jiangsu University



China Three Gorges University



Yangzhou University



Liaoning Medical University



Hebei United University


Pharmacology 1-30 FMGE MCQs


1.Which drug name is not a generic name?


B. Valium

C. Ipratropium

D. Hyoscine

2.Which of the following is not a pharmacokinetic property of a drug?

A. Metabolism

B. Protein-binding

C. Absorption

D. Receptor-binding

3. Sodium hydrogen carbonate is sold as a drug under various names such as alkali, baking soda, uracol, and sodium bicarbonate. Which of the following is considered a proprietary name for this substance?

A. Uracol

B. Sodium bicarbonate

C. Sodium hydrogen carbonate

D. Baking soda

4. Drugs are often protein-bound in the bloodstream. What is the principal protein that does this best?

A. Fibrinogen

B. Albumin

C. Haemoglobin

D. Gamma globulin

5. Natural vitamin E is usually given in gelatine capsules dissolved in soybean oil. Which word would best described the property of vitamin E in this process?

A. Lipophobic

B. Hydrophilic

C. Lipophilic

D. Hydroxylation

6. The principal site of drug metabolism is the:

A. kidneys

B. stomach

C. colon

D. liver

7. The most efficient absorption of a drug takes place in the ileum if the drug is:

A. non-ionised at a pH of ~6

B. a weak base

C. ionised at a pH of ~8

D. a weak acid

8. What is the basic mechanism of action of an osmotic diuretic such as urea?

A. Physical

B. Chemical

C. Enzyme inhibition

D. Receptor activation

9. A drug administered to a person produced a blood concentration of 900 ng/L after 3 hours. After a further 5 hours the concentration had fallen to 300 ng/L. What is the approximate half-life of this drug assuming zero kinetics?

A. 5 hours

B. 3 hours

C. 4.5 hours

D. 3.5 hours

10. Morphine and pentazocine both act upon similar receptors in the central nervous system and produce analgesia. If pentazocine is given to a morphine addict it may produce withdrawal symptoms. What kind of action does pentazocine have at opioid receptors?

A. A full antagonist action

B. A partial agonist action

C. A full agonist action

D. An inhibitor action

11. Which of these drugs is a potent enzyme inhibitor in the liver?

A. Famotidine

B. Nizatidine

C. Ranitidine

D. Cimetidine

12. Under what conditions is it most important to store sodium nitroprusside?

A. Protected from heat

B. Protected from moisture

C. Protected from cold

D. Protected from light

13. It is possible to refer to a medication using different names. Which type of name is best to use in clinical practice?

A. The medication’s trade name.

B. The medication’s proprietary name.

C. The medication’s chemical name.

D. The medication’s generic name.

14. A drug’s margin of safety is the dose range which places it:

A. above both the minimum effective concentration (mec) and maximum safe concentration (msc)

B. below the maximum safe concentration (msc) and above the minimum effective concentration (mec)

C. above the maximum safe concentration (msc) and below the minimum effective concentration (mec)

D. below both the maximum safe concentration (msc) and minimum effective concentration (mec)

15. Blood cell lysis is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?




D. I

16. Placental drug transfer is affected by the drug’s:

A. molecular size only

B. affinity for plasma proteins only

C. concentration gradient across the placenta only

D. all of the above affect placental drug transfer

17. In reference to the use of medicines in pregnancy, a category X drug is described as a medicine:

A. where animal studies may be inadequate, but there is no evidence of foetal damage

B. that has no proven harmful effects on the foetus

C. have a high risk of causing irreversible damage to the foetus

D. where the harmful effects on the foetus may be reversible

18. A slow acetylator administered a drug metabolised in this way may warrant:

A. an increase in drug dosage

B. a decrease in drug dosage

C. no special considerations in their care

D. more frequent dosage

19. Parenteral drug absorption in a person with congestive cardiac failure might be expected to result in:

A. higher blood concentration and a lower concentration at the injection site

B. lower blood concentration and a higher concentration at the injection site

C. higher blood concentration and a higher concentration at the injection site

D. lower blood concentration and a lower concentration at the injection site

20. Which of the following physiological states would be expected to result in higher plasma levels if the drug was hydrophilic?

A. When taking the drug with food

B. Diuresis

C. An increase in gut peristalsis

D. In hepatic disorders

21. Which of the following statements is applicable when administering a drug to a paediatric client?

A. Involve the parents in the procedure

B. In order to gain the child’s co-operation tell the child that injections don’t hurt.

C. Prepare the medications in front of the child.

D. Avoid the oral route when giving a drug to a young child.

22. Generally, the most reliable indicator for paediatric dose calculations is:

A. age

B. bodyweight

C. sex

D. body surface area

23. Why is it important to assess the number of medications an elderly client is taking?

A. Solely to minimise drug interactions

B. Solely to minimise adverse drug reactions

C. Only because the person may be seeing a number of doctors who do not communicate with each other about the drugs they have prescribed

D. All of the above

24. Which of the following factors would not be expected to contribute to compliance with drug treatment in the elderly?

A. Individualised medication education

B. Complicated drug regimens

C. Use of a dosette box

D. Thorough assessment of clients

25. If aspirin is administered together with warfarin, what is the most likely outcome with respect to protein binding?

A. There will be more unbound (free) form of the warfarin available, leading to a decreased bleeding tendency.

B. There will be more bound form of the warfarin available, leading to an increased bleeding tendency.

C. There will be more bound form of the warfarin available, leading to a decreased bleeding tendency.

D. There will be more free (or unbound) form of the warfarin available, leading to increased bleeding tendency.

26. Which of the following is not a type of phase I metabolism?

A. Removal or addition of an active molecule group on a drug.

B. Conjugation of a drug with a polar molecule to render the product soluble for excretion.

C. Oxidation of a drug.

D. Reduction and hydrolysis of a drug.

27. _______ medications have a larger volume of distribution in neonates and young infants compared with adults and therefore require a larger dose to reach therapeutic levels.

A. highly protein bound

B. hydrophilic and lipophilic

C. hydrophilic

D. lipophilic

28. In which state are drugs more likely to be well absorbed?

A. Polar

B. Un-ionised

C. Charged

D. Hydrophilic

29. In a case of poisoning, a drug with which apparent volume of distribution would be most effectively cleared from the body by haemodialysis?

A. 50 L/kg

B. 0.57 L/kg

C. 0.04 L/kg

D. 3 L/kg

30. The parameters that contribute to determining the drug half-life are:

A. clearance and apparent volumegggof distribution

B. apparent volume of distribution and plasma drug concentration

C. loading dose and clearance

D. frequency of administration and plasma drug concentration


Question 21: All the following are correct about radiological evaluation of a patient with Cushing’s syndrome except

1. Adrenal CT scan distinguishes adrenal cortical hyperplasia from an adrenal tumor

2. CT of sella tursica is diagnostic when a pituitary tumor is present

3. MRI of the adrenals may distinguish adrenal adenoma from carcinoma

4. Petrosal sinus sampling is the best way to distinguish tumor from an ectopic ACTH producing tumor

Question 22: Most physiological treatment of duodenal ulcer is

1. Highly selective vagotomy

2. Antrectomy

3. Vagotomy & gastrojejunostomy

4. Gastrojejunostomy

Question 23: A 30 year old male was brought to the casualty following a road traffic accident. His physical examination revealed that his right lower limb was short, internally rotated, and flexed and adducted at the hip. The most likely diagnosis is

1. Posterior dislocation of hip

2. Central Fracture dislocation of hip

3. Trochanteric fracture

4. Fracture neck of femur

Question 24: Incontinence in urinary tract infection is

1. False

2. True

3. Stress

4. Urge

Question 25: Inversion injury of foot is associated with damage to all the following except 1.

1. Lateral malleolus

2. Base of 5th metatarsal bone

3. Sustentaculum tali

4. Extensor digitorum brevis

Question 26: A man aged 60 yrs has h/o IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents with abdominal pain and maroon stools, likely diagnosis is

1. Acute intestinal obstruction

2. Acute mesenteric ischemia

3. Peritonitis

4. Appendicitis

Question 27: An anterolateral corodotomy relieving pain in right leg is effective because it interrupts the:

1. Left dorsal column

2. Left ventral spinothalmic tract

3. Left lateral spinothalmic tract

4. Right lateral spinothalmic tract

Question 28: Thickness of stomach in ultrasound is

1. 2mm

2. 5mm

3. 7mm

4. 10mm

Question 29: A 27 year old man presents with a left testicular tumor with a 10 cm retroperitoneal lymph node mass. The treatment of choice is

1. Radiotherapy

2. Immunotherapy with interferon and interleukins

3. Left high inguinal orchiectomy plus chemotherapy

4. Chemotherapy alone

Question 30: Sympathectomy is indicated in all the following conditions except

1. Ischaemic ulcers

2. Anhidrosis

3. Intermittent claudication

4. Acrocyanosis

Question 31: Most common cause of acute pancreatitis is

1. Gall stone

2. Alcohol

3. Trauma

4. Cyst

Question 32: True intracavernous aneurysms present with

1. Ophthalmological problems

2. Headache

3. Nasal intonation of voice

4. Vomiting

Question 33: Littre’s hernia includes

1. Meckel’s diverticulum

2. Intestinal margins

3. Umblicus

4. Omentum

Question 34: The commonest site for congenital “Arachnoid cyst” is

1. Sylvian fissure

2. Cerebello-pontine angle

3. Cerebello-pontine angle

4. Cerebellar vermis

Question 35: A post thyroidectomy patient presents with tingling and perioral paresthesia. Serum calcium level was 7 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best line of management

1. Oral vitamin D3

2. Oral vitamin D3 with calcium

3. I.V.calcium gluconate

4. Observation

Question 36: In which of the following conditions is paradoxical respiration observed

1. Stove-in chest

2. Flail chest

3. Pneumothorax

4. Haemopneumothorax

Question 37: Which one of the following radio-isotopes is commonly used as a source for external beam radiotherapy in the treatment of cancer patients

1. Strontium-89

2. Radium-226

3. Cobalt-59

4. Cobalt-60

Question 38: Shepherd crook deformity is seen in

1. Osteopetrosis

2. Fibrous dysplasia

3. Rheumatoid arthritis

4. Osteoarthritis

Question 39: Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in an child does not occur in

1. Rickets

2. Lead poisoning

3. Metaphyseal dysplasia

4. Hypophosphatasia

Question 40: “CSF Rhinorrhoea” may occur because of all except

1. Trauma

2. Chronically Raised Intracranial pressure

3. Acoustic tumor

4. Pituitary surgery

News: Health ministry rejects MCI proposal on UG medical degrees from six English-speaking nations

NEW DELHI: All doctors, who have an undergraduate medical degree from abroad, will have to appear for a screening test before they can practise in India.

This rule will also apply for Indian doctors with post-graduate (PG) medical degrees from the UK, the US,Canada, Australia, Ireland and New Zealand.

Doctors with an UG degree from India and a PG degree from these six countries have been allowed by the Union health ministry to practise in any public or private hospital in India. They can also be a faculty member in any medical college without appearing for a screening test.

On Monday, the Medical Council of India ( MCI) proposed that those who have an UG medical degree from these six English-speaking countries should also be allowed to work in India without appearing for a screening test.

However, Union health secretary K Chandramouli rejected the proposal.

Dr Ranjit Roychoudhury, MCI’s governing body (GB) member, said, "We had asked the government to relax the rules of appearing for a screening test for senior doctors with a lot of medical experience from these countries since their PG degrees are already recognized. But the suggestion was not accepted. The screening test will remain universal."

GB member Dr Sita Naik added, "With so many hospitals coming up in India, which already faces an acute shortage of trained medical manpower, we suggested relaxing the rules of the screening test for these countries. We felt it wasn’t appropriate for senior, established doctors from these countries to be asked to appear for a screening examination if they wanted to work in India."

However, another GB member Dr Devi Shetty said, "We’ll submit a proposal on Tuesday on how the government can allow selective screening. The proposal has not been shelved yet."

Union health ministry had recognized PG medical degrees from these six countries in 2007, which allowed a lot of Indian doctors settled abroad to return home. Prior to 2007, India didn’t recognize the PG degree from these countries as recognizing it was a reciprocal gesture.

India had only recognized PG degrees of countries that acknowledged India’s PG qualifications, like Ireland, Bangladesh and Nepal. Then health secretary Naresh Dayal had said, "This move will see a large number of Indian doctors return home to work. Many will come on sabbaticals for a short stint in teaching or even practise in public or private hospitals."

Experts were also optimistic about the initiative. ‘India is increasing its number of PG seats and medical institutes are offering PG degrees. Six new AIIMS-like institutions are coming up. All these will require specialized faculty, which won’t be available from the present pool. That’s why we are trying to remove all barriers for Indian doctors to return to India."

India faces a severe shortage of doctors. There is one doctor per 1,634 people in the country.

Collected from: Times of India News Paper


All Indian Students are advised to read the fmge exam brochure and application, So that you can know many important information which you don’t know.

Click to Download fmge Brochure

Click to Download application Form


Hi Friends,

On Friday 09-04-2011,

In classroom 507 after Internal Medicine class , we will have discussion on Internship and other issues of our course.

If you any questions or doubts or suggestions, write on paper including your name and id card number and hand it over to Pardhu or Niraj or email us.

Hope all students will attend the discussion.

%d bloggers like this: