Monthly Archives: January 2012

Pharmacology 1-30 FMGE MCQs


Pharmacology

1.Which drug name is not a generic name?

A.Atropine

B. Valium

C. Ipratropium

D. Hyoscine

2.Which of the following is not a pharmacokinetic property of a drug?

A. Metabolism

B. Protein-binding

C. Absorption

D. Receptor-binding

3. Sodium hydrogen carbonate is sold as a drug under various names such as alkali, baking soda, uracol, and sodium bicarbonate. Which of the following is considered a proprietary name for this substance?

A. Uracol

B. Sodium bicarbonate

C. Sodium hydrogen carbonate

D. Baking soda

4. Drugs are often protein-bound in the bloodstream. What is the principal protein that does this best?

A. Fibrinogen

B. Albumin

C. Haemoglobin

D. Gamma globulin

5. Natural vitamin E is usually given in gelatine capsules dissolved in soybean oil. Which word would best described the property of vitamin E in this process?

A. Lipophobic

B. Hydrophilic

C. Lipophilic

D. Hydroxylation

6. The principal site of drug metabolism is the:

A. kidneys

B. stomach

C. colon

D. liver

7. The most efficient absorption of a drug takes place in the ileum if the drug is:

A. non-ionised at a pH of ~6

B. a weak base

C. ionised at a pH of ~8

D. a weak acid

8. What is the basic mechanism of action of an osmotic diuretic such as urea?

A. Physical

B. Chemical

C. Enzyme inhibition

D. Receptor activation

9. A drug administered to a person produced a blood concentration of 900 ng/L after 3 hours. After a further 5 hours the concentration had fallen to 300 ng/L. What is the approximate half-life of this drug assuming zero kinetics?

A. 5 hours

B. 3 hours

C. 4.5 hours

D. 3.5 hours

10. Morphine and pentazocine both act upon similar receptors in the central nervous system and produce analgesia. If pentazocine is given to a morphine addict it may produce withdrawal symptoms. What kind of action does pentazocine have at opioid receptors?

A. A full antagonist action

B. A partial agonist action

C. A full agonist action

D. An inhibitor action

11. Which of these drugs is a potent enzyme inhibitor in the liver?

A. Famotidine

B. Nizatidine

C. Ranitidine

D. Cimetidine

12. Under what conditions is it most important to store sodium nitroprusside?

A. Protected from heat

B. Protected from moisture

C. Protected from cold

D. Protected from light

13. It is possible to refer to a medication using different names. Which type of name is best to use in clinical practice?

A. The medication’s trade name.

B. The medication’s proprietary name.

C. The medication’s chemical name.

D. The medication’s generic name.

14. A drug’s margin of safety is the dose range which places it:

A. above both the minimum effective concentration (mec) and maximum safe concentration (msc)

B. below the maximum safe concentration (msc) and above the minimum effective concentration (mec)

C. above the maximum safe concentration (msc) and below the minimum effective concentration (mec)

D. below both the maximum safe concentration (msc) and minimum effective concentration (mec)

15. Blood cell lysis is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A. IV

B. III

C. II

D. I

16. Placental drug transfer is affected by the drug’s:

A. molecular size only

B. affinity for plasma proteins only

C. concentration gradient across the placenta only

D. all of the above affect placental drug transfer

17. In reference to the use of medicines in pregnancy, a category X drug is described as a medicine:

A. where animal studies may be inadequate, but there is no evidence of foetal damage

B. that has no proven harmful effects on the foetus

C. have a high risk of causing irreversible damage to the foetus

D. where the harmful effects on the foetus may be reversible

18. A slow acetylator administered a drug metabolised in this way may warrant:

A. an increase in drug dosage

B. a decrease in drug dosage

C. no special considerations in their care

D. more frequent dosage

19. Parenteral drug absorption in a person with congestive cardiac failure might be expected to result in:

A. higher blood concentration and a lower concentration at the injection site

B. lower blood concentration and a higher concentration at the injection site

C. higher blood concentration and a higher concentration at the injection site

D. lower blood concentration and a lower concentration at the injection site

20. Which of the following physiological states would be expected to result in higher plasma levels if the drug was hydrophilic?

A. When taking the drug with food

B. Diuresis

C. An increase in gut peristalsis

D. In hepatic disorders

21. Which of the following statements is applicable when administering a drug to a paediatric client?

A. Involve the parents in the procedure

B. In order to gain the child’s co-operation tell the child that injections don’t hurt.

C. Prepare the medications in front of the child.

D. Avoid the oral route when giving a drug to a young child.

22. Generally, the most reliable indicator for paediatric dose calculations is:

A. age

B. bodyweight

C. sex

D. body surface area

23. Why is it important to assess the number of medications an elderly client is taking?

A. Solely to minimise drug interactions

B. Solely to minimise adverse drug reactions

C. Only because the person may be seeing a number of doctors who do not communicate with each other about the drugs they have prescribed

D. All of the above

24. Which of the following factors would not be expected to contribute to compliance with drug treatment in the elderly?

A. Individualised medication education

B. Complicated drug regimens

C. Use of a dosette box

D. Thorough assessment of clients

25. If aspirin is administered together with warfarin, what is the most likely outcome with respect to protein binding?

A. There will be more unbound (free) form of the warfarin available, leading to a decreased bleeding tendency.

B. There will be more bound form of the warfarin available, leading to an increased bleeding tendency.

C. There will be more bound form of the warfarin available, leading to a decreased bleeding tendency.

D. There will be more free (or unbound) form of the warfarin available, leading to increased bleeding tendency.

26. Which of the following is not a type of phase I metabolism?

A. Removal or addition of an active molecule group on a drug.

B. Conjugation of a drug with a polar molecule to render the product soluble for excretion.

C. Oxidation of a drug.

D. Reduction and hydrolysis of a drug.

27. _______ medications have a larger volume of distribution in neonates and young infants compared with adults and therefore require a larger dose to reach therapeutic levels.

A. highly protein bound

B. hydrophilic and lipophilic

C. hydrophilic

D. lipophilic

28. In which state are drugs more likely to be well absorbed?

A. Polar

B. Un-ionised

C. Charged

D. Hydrophilic

29. In a case of poisoning, a drug with which apparent volume of distribution would be most effectively cleared from the body by haemodialysis?

A. 50 L/kg

B. 0.57 L/kg

C. 0.04 L/kg

D. 3 L/kg

30. The parameters that contribute to determining the drug half-life are:

A. clearance and apparent volumegggof distribution

B. apparent volume of distribution and plasma drug concentration

C. loading dose and clearance

D. frequency of administration and plasma drug concentration

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SURGERY 21 – 40 FMGE MOST COMMON QUESTONS


Question 21: All the following are correct about radiological evaluation of a patient with Cushing’s syndrome except

1. Adrenal CT scan distinguishes adrenal cortical hyperplasia from an adrenal tumor

2. CT of sella tursica is diagnostic when a pituitary tumor is present

3. MRI of the adrenals may distinguish adrenal adenoma from carcinoma

4. Petrosal sinus sampling is the best way to distinguish tumor from an ectopic ACTH producing tumor

Question 22: Most physiological treatment of duodenal ulcer is

1. Highly selective vagotomy

2. Antrectomy

3. Vagotomy & gastrojejunostomy

4. Gastrojejunostomy

Question 23: A 30 year old male was brought to the casualty following a road traffic accident. His physical examination revealed that his right lower limb was short, internally rotated, and flexed and adducted at the hip. The most likely diagnosis is

1. Posterior dislocation of hip

2. Central Fracture dislocation of hip

3. Trochanteric fracture

4. Fracture neck of femur

Question 24: Incontinence in urinary tract infection is

1. False

2. True

3. Stress

4. Urge

Question 25: Inversion injury of foot is associated with damage to all the following except 1.

1. Lateral malleolus

2. Base of 5th metatarsal bone

3. Sustentaculum tali

4. Extensor digitorum brevis

Question 26: A man aged 60 yrs has h/o IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents with abdominal pain and maroon stools, likely diagnosis is

1. Acute intestinal obstruction

2. Acute mesenteric ischemia

3. Peritonitis

4. Appendicitis

Question 27: An anterolateral corodotomy relieving pain in right leg is effective because it interrupts the:

1. Left dorsal column

2. Left ventral spinothalmic tract

3. Left lateral spinothalmic tract

4. Right lateral spinothalmic tract

Question 28: Thickness of stomach in ultrasound is

1. 2mm

2. 5mm

3. 7mm

4. 10mm

Question 29: A 27 year old man presents with a left testicular tumor with a 10 cm retroperitoneal lymph node mass. The treatment of choice is

1. Radiotherapy

2. Immunotherapy with interferon and interleukins

3. Left high inguinal orchiectomy plus chemotherapy

4. Chemotherapy alone

Question 30: Sympathectomy is indicated in all the following conditions except

1. Ischaemic ulcers

2. Anhidrosis

3. Intermittent claudication

4. Acrocyanosis

Question 31: Most common cause of acute pancreatitis is

1. Gall stone

2. Alcohol

3. Trauma

4. Cyst

Question 32: True intracavernous aneurysms present with

1. Ophthalmological problems

2. Headache

3. Nasal intonation of voice

4. Vomiting

Question 33: Littre’s hernia includes

1. Meckel’s diverticulum

2. Intestinal margins

3. Umblicus

4. Omentum

Question 34: The commonest site for congenital “Arachnoid cyst” is

1. Sylvian fissure

2. Cerebello-pontine angle

3. Cerebello-pontine angle

4. Cerebellar vermis

Question 35: A post thyroidectomy patient presents with tingling and perioral paresthesia. Serum calcium level was 7 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best line of management

1. Oral vitamin D3

2. Oral vitamin D3 with calcium

3. I.V.calcium gluconate

4. Observation

Question 36: In which of the following conditions is paradoxical respiration observed

1. Stove-in chest

2. Flail chest

3. Pneumothorax

4. Haemopneumothorax

Question 37: Which one of the following radio-isotopes is commonly used as a source for external beam radiotherapy in the treatment of cancer patients

1. Strontium-89

2. Radium-226

3. Cobalt-59

4. Cobalt-60

Question 38: Shepherd crook deformity is seen in

1. Osteopetrosis

2. Fibrous dysplasia

3. Rheumatoid arthritis

4. Osteoarthritis

Question 39: Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in an child does not occur in

1. Rickets

2. Lead poisoning

3. Metaphyseal dysplasia

4. Hypophosphatasia

Question 40: “CSF Rhinorrhoea” may occur because of all except

1. Trauma

2. Chronically Raised Intracranial pressure

3. Acoustic tumor

4. Pituitary surgery

SURGERY (11-20) MOST COMMON FMGE QUESTIONS


Try to Solve them n Post your Answers through Comment.  I’ll Post Answers Tomorrow in Comment Section.

Question 11: The Hunterian Ligature operation is performed for

1. Varicose veins

2. Arteriovenous fistulae

3. Aneurysm

4. Acute ischemia

Question 12: The most common malignancy after cholecystectomy is of

1. Colon

2. Stomach

3. Pancreas

4. Ileum

Question 13: All the following indicates early gastric cancer except

1. Involvement of mucosa

2. Involvement of mucosa and submucosa

3. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and muscularis

4. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and adjacent lymph nodes

Question 14: Trans-cranial Doppler Ultrasonography(TCD) uses all of the following windows except

1. Trans-temporal

2. Trans-orbital

3. Foramen magnum

4. Trans-frontal

Question 15: In a motor vehicle accident the seat belt leads to following EXPECTED

1. Reduced incidence of severe thoracic injury

2. Occurrence of small intestine and mesenteric injury

3. Increased severity of decelerating head injury

4. Trauma to major intra abdominal

Question 16: After appendicectomy, fecal fistula may be due to

1. Crohn’s disease

2. Ulcerative colitis

3. TB

4. Amebic colitis

Question 17: In a patient having heavy dense bones, penetration is best achieved by

1. Increase in mA

2. Increase in kVp

3. Increased exposure time

4. Increased developing time

Question 18: Which type of hypospadias does not need any treatment

1. Galndular

2. Coronal

3. Penile

4. Peno-scrotal

Question 19: On her third of hospitalization, a 70 year old woman who is being treated for acute cholecystitis develops increased pain and tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a palpable mass. Her temperature rises to 104 F and her BP falls to 80/60.Heametamesis and malena ensue and petechiae are noted. Laboratory studies reveal thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT, and decreased fibrinogen level. The most important step in the correction of this patients coagulopathy

1. Administration of heparin

2. Administration of fresh frozen plasma

3. Administration of Epsilon amino caproic acid

4. Exploratory laparotomy

Question 20: The treatment modality of achalasia which has the maximum probability of causing a recurrence is

1. Pneumatic dilatation

2. Laparoscopic myotomy

3. Botulinum toxin

4. Open surgical myotomy

SURGERY — MOST COMMON FMGE QUESTIONS (1-10)


Question 1: A patient presented with a 3.5 cms size lymph node enlargement, which was hard and presented in submandibular region. Examination of the head and neck did not yield any lesion. The next investigation to be done

1. CXR

2. Triple endoscopy

3. Supravital staining of oral mucosa

4. Laryngoscopy

Question 2: A 50-year old male. Working as a hotel cook, has four dependent family members. He has been diagnosed with an early stage squamous cell cancer of anal canal. He has more than 60% chances of cure. The best treatment option is

1. Abdomino-perineal resection

2. Combined surgery and radiotherapy

3. Combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy

4. Chemotherapy alone

Question 3: A patient on same evening after thyroidectomy has swelling and difficulty breathing. Next step of management will be

1. Open immediately

2. Intubate oro tracheally

3. Wait and watch

4. Oxygen by mask

Question 4: Most common cause of aneurysm of abdominal aorta is

1. Trauma

2. Atherosclerosis

3. Syphilis

4. Cysitic medial necrosis

Question 5: Post cricoid carcinoma of the oesophagus are best treated by

1. Radiotherapy

2. Total oesophagectomy

3. Pharyngolaryngectomy with gastric transposition

4. Intubation through growth

Question 6: Pitutary region can be best viewed by

1. Plain AP view

2. Caldwell

3. Townes

4. Basal view

Question 7: Isotope selectively concentrated in abscess cavities

1. Gallium

2. Technetium

3. Selenium

4. Chromium

Question 8: Neural tube defects occur during gestational age

1. 18-22 days

2. 26-30 days

3. 22-26 days

4. 30-34 days

Question 9: The muscle pair which rotates radius without flexion and extension at arm is

1. Pronator quadratus and pronator teres

2. Supinator and Anconeus

3. Bachioradialis and brachialis

4. Triceps and Biceps brachii

Question 10: A lady presents with a history of fracture radius, which was put on plaster of paris cast for 4 weeks. After that she developed swelling of hands with shiny skin. What is the most likely diagnosis

1. Rupture of extensor policis longus tendon

2. Myositis ossificans

3. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

4. Malunion

SURGERY MOST COMMON  FMGE QUESTIONS, Try to Solve them n Post your Answers through Comment.

   I’ll Post Answers Tomorrow…

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